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Old 09-28-2015, 08:09 PM
allenyin allenyin is offline
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Default *answer* q2

Can anyone explain to me why the answer to this question is logistic regression?

Logistic regression models trained on different data-sets will all yield value in the range [0,1] given new test points. Averaging [0,1] will still result in [0,1], wouldn't that also make g_avg a valid logistic regression?

The only thing I can think of might be that, the average might end up with total probability integrated in the interval to be greater than 1...
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Old 09-28-2015, 10:53 PM
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yaser yaser is offline
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Default Re: *answer* q2

The key point is whether the average can be written as a single logistic regression with the appropriate parameters. If it can, then \bar g \in {\cal H} since {\cal H} contains all logistic regression functions. If sometimes it cannot, then indeed \bar g may not be in {\cal H}. Can you think of two logistics regression functions whose average is not one?
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