LFD Book Forum  

Go Back   LFD Book Forum > Course Discussions > Online LFD course > Homework 4

 
 
Thread Tools Display Modes
Prev Previous Post   Next Post Next
  #1  
Old 08-01-2012, 05:41 PM
samirbajaj samirbajaj is offline
Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2012
Location: Silicon Valley
Posts: 48
Default Why would variance be non-zero?

In question 6 on the homework, we are asked to compute the variance across all data sets.

If we are sampling uniformly from the interval [-1, 1] for the calculation of g_bar, as well as for each data set (g_d), why would the variance be anything but a very small quantity? In the general case, when the data sets are not drawn from a uniform distribution, a non-zero variance makes sense, but if there is sufficient overlap in the data sets, it makes intuitive sense that the variance should be close to zero.

I ask this because my simulation results support the above (potentially flawed) theory.

Please answer the question in general terms -- I don't care about the homework answer -- I was merely using that as an example.

Thanks for any input.

-Samir
Reply With Quote
 

Tags
variance

Thread Tools
Display Modes

Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is Off

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -7. The time now is 04:43 AM.


Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.3
Copyright ©2000 - 2019, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.
The contents of this forum are to be used ONLY by readers of the Learning From Data book by Yaser S. Abu-Mostafa, Malik Magdon-Ismail, and Hsuan-Tien Lin, and participants in the Learning From Data MOOC by Yaser S. Abu-Mostafa. No part of these contents is to be communicated or made accessible to ANY other person or entity.