*answer* q2

[allenyin]

Can anyone explain to me why the answer to this question is logistic regression?

Logistic regression models trained on different data-sets will all yield value in the range [0,1] given new test points. Averaging [0,1] will still result in [0,1], wouldn't that also make g_avg a valid logistic regression?

The only thing I can think of might be that, the average might end up with total probability integrated in the interval to be greater than 1...