#1
09-28-2015, 07:09 PM
 allenyin Junior Member Join Date: Aug 2015 Posts: 2

Can anyone explain to me why the answer to this question is logistic regression?

Logistic regression models trained on different data-sets will all yield value in the range [0,1] given new test points. Averaging [0,1] will still result in [0,1], wouldn't that also make g_avg a valid logistic regression?

The only thing I can think of might be that, the average might end up with total probability integrated in the interval to be greater than 1...
#2
09-28-2015, 09:53 PM
 yaser Caltech Join Date: Aug 2009 Location: Pasadena, California, USA Posts: 1,477

The key point is whether the average can be written as a single logistic regression with the appropriate parameters. If it can, then since contains all logistic regression functions. If sometimes it cannot, then indeed may not be in . Can you think of two logistics regression functions whose average is not one?
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