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Old 10-26-2016, 03:28 PM
CountVonCount CountVonCount is offline
Join Date: Oct 2016
Posts: 17
Default Re: Discussion of the VC proof

I have also another question on the same page (190):
At the end of the page there is the formula:

I don't understand why the RHS is greater or equal to the LHS. The only legitimation I see for this is, that the distribution of P[S] is uniform, but this has not been stated in the text.
Or do I oversee here anything and this is also valid for all kinds of distribution?
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