Re: *ANSWER* Questions 46 of Hwk 4 (bias and variance)
Wow major misunderstanding/typo. The pdf of a uniform random variable from 1 to 1 is 1/2 (i.e. 1/11). The expected value is 1/2*(a+b) or 1/2*0, or just zero. Anyway, so adding the uniform pdf p(x) into the integral just halves the value of each integral. Still not understanding what is wrong with my logic, though.
