Quote:
Originally Posted by ntvy95
Instead of choosing or explicitly, the proof let the choice for the value of depends on the value of : , because for whatever the real value of is, only has value of 1 or 1, hence or . In my understanding, this dependence does not make the chosen dichotomy invalid.

That's the point. This part is crucial: "the proof let the choice for the value of
depends on the value of
". The only certain correlation is
. How do we know (definition, theorem, lemma,...) that
works the same as
? IMHO it cannot be drawn from the
, (where not all
coefficients are zeros).