I calculated what I think is the best approximation by minimizing the derivative over

**a** of the integral of the sine function minus the line y=ax. When I compare this to the result of my simulation, there's a difference of about 30% between the two possible values for

**a**.

I realize that it's reasonable to assume that \bar{g} won't be the best result (see minute 43 in lecture 8, comparing .20 to .21). But is anyone else getting a result that differs by so much?